Question: If you change the magnetic field in a closed loop of wire, what is created in the loop is a(n)

Choices:
- current
- voltage
- electric field
- All of these


Question: Clocks on a fast-moving spaceship whizzing past Earth appear to run slow when viewed from

Choices:
- inside the spaceship.
- Earth.
- Both of these.
- Neither of these.


Question: The model of light most supported by the photoelectric effect is the

Choices:
- wave model
- particle model
- Both of these
- Neither of these


Question: Compared with a fundamental tone, the frequency of its second harmonic is

Choices:
- half as much
- twice as much
- the same
- four times as much


Question: A string is plucked producing four loops (antinodes). The length of the string is 12.00 m. The wavelength of the wave must be

Choices:
- 48.0 m
- 24.0 m
- 6.00 m
- 3.00 m


Question: During the time an aircraft produces a sonic boom, the aircraft is

Choices:
- breaking the sound barrier
- pulling out of a subsonic dive
- flying faster than sound
- All of these


Question: The principal source of Earth’s internal energy is

Choices:
- tidal friction
- gravitational pressure
- radioactivity
- geothermal heat


Question: When you brush your hair and scrape electrons from your hair, the charge of your hair becomes

Choices:
- positive
- negative
- Both of these
- Neither of these


Question: Astrophysicists are able to identify the elements in the outer layers of a star by studying its

Choices:
- Doppler effect.
- molecular structure.
- temperature.
- spectrum.


Question: Relativistic equations for time dilation length contraction and relativistic momentum and energy hold true

Choices:
- at speeds near that of light.
- at everyday low speeds.
- at all speeds.
- only approximately.


Question: In his special theory of relativity, Einstein stated that the laws of physics are

Choices:
- different in different situations.
- common sense applied to microscopic and macroscopic things.
- the same in all frames of reference.
- the same in all uniformly moving frames of reference.


Question: When an element ejects a beta particle, the atomic number of that element

Choices:
- reduces by 1
- increases by 1
- reduces by 2
- increases by 2


Question: The amount of heat transferred to a system can be measured in

Choices:
- calories
- joules
- Either
- Neither


Question: Compared with the sound you hear from the siren of a stationary fire engine, its sound when it approaches you has an increased

Choices:
- speed
- frequency
- Both of these
- Neither of these


Question: Light reflecting from a smooth surface undergoes a change in

Choices:
- frequency.
- wavelength.
- All of these.
- None of these.


Question: What Einstein discovered about space and time is that they

Choices:
- are separate entities.
- are parts of one whole.
- follow an inverse-square law.
- are special to space travelers.


Question: All parts of a laser beam have the same

Choices:
- frequency
- phase
- speed
- All of these


Question: The rotational inertia of an object is greater when most of the mass is located

Choices:
- near the rotational axis
- away from the axis
- on the rotational axis
- off center


Question: When small pieces of material are assembled into a larger piece, the combined surface area

Choices:
- greatly increases
- slightly increases
- decreases
- is unchanged


Question: A rainbow is the result of light in raindrops that undergoes

Choices:
- internal reflection
- dispersion
- refraction
- All of these


Question: In the atomic nucleus, electrical forces tend to

Choices:
- hold particles together
- push particles apart
- produce orbital motion
- charge particles


Question: The fact that the acceleration of free fall is the same for all masses is explained by Newton’s

Choices:
- first law
- second law
- third law
- law of action–reaction


Question: Compared with radiation from the Sun, terrestrial radiation has a lower

Choices:
- wavelength
- frequency
- Both
- Neither


Question: When we speak of time dilation, we mean that time

Choices:
- compresses with speed.
- stretches with speed.
- is a constant at all speeds.
- is related to space.


Question: The magnetic field lines about a current-carrying wire form

Choices:
- circles
- radial lines
- eddy currents
- energy loops


Question: An inflated balloon with a heavy rock tied to it is dropped into a deep lake. As the balloon sinks deeper and deeper the buoyant force acting on it

Choices:
- increases.
- decreases.
- remains largely unchanged.
- Need more information.


Question: A radioactive sample has a half-life of 1 hour. If we start with 1.000 gram of it at noon, how much remains at 3:00 pm?

Choices:
- 0.50 g
- 0.25 g
- 0.125 g
- 0.0625 g


Question: Boiling and freezing occur when water is subjected to

Choices:
- decreased temperatures
- decreased atmospheric pressure
- increased temperatures
- increased atmospheric pressure


Question: When you bend the branch of a tree by hanging on its end, the top side of the branch is under

Choices:
- tension.
- compression.
- Both.
- Neither.


Question: A simple and correct way to comprehend satellites orbiting Earth is to view them as

Choices:
- balanced between gravitational and centripetal forces.
- beyond the main pull of Earth gravity.
- in mechanical equilibrium with a net force of zero.
- having sufficient tangential velocities to fall around rather than into Earth.


Question: The Barkhausen criterion for an oscillator

Choices:
- Loop gain should be unity
- Loop gain should be less than unity
- The phase of a feedback signal with respect to input should be 0° or 360°
- Both A and C


Question: Potentiometer method of DC voltage measurement is more accurate than direct measurement using a voltmeter because

Choices:
- It loads the circuit moderately.
- It loads the circuit to maximum extent.
- It uses centre zero galvanometer instead of voltmeter.
- It does not load the circuit at all.


Question: Which of these sets of logic gates are designated as universal gates?

Choices:
- NOR, NAND.
- XOR, NOR, NAND.
- OR, NOT, AND.
- NOR, NAND, XNOR.


Question: A single phase one pulse controlled circuit has a resistance R and counter emf E load 400 sin(314 t) as the source voltage. For a load counter emf of 200 V, the range of firing angle control is

Choices:
- 30° to 150°.
- 30° to 180°.
- 60° to 120°.
- 60° to 180°.


Question: A box which tells the effect of inputs on control sub system is known as

Choices:
- Data Box.
- Logical box.
- Decision box.
- State box.


Question: Two infinite parallel metal plates are charged with equal surface charge density of the same polarity. The electric field in the gap between the plates is

Choices:
- same as that produced by one plate.
- double the field produced by one plate.
- dependent on coordinates of field points.
- zero.


Question: The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a dynamometer wattmeter should be

Choices:
- Low.
- Very low.
- High.
- Almost zero.


Question: The following are the necessary requirements of an oscillator

Choices:
- Amplitude stability
- Frequency stability
- Power stability
- Both A and B


Question: The normal voltage used in directional heating is

Choices:
- 1.5 KV.
- 15 KV.
- 33 KV.
- 66 KV.


Question: LC oscillators are used for produce a waveform with frequency ranging from

Choices:
- 1MHz to 500 MHz
- 100 KHz to 500 MHz
- 1 KHz to 1 MHz
- 1MHz to 100 GHz


Question: A working diode must have

Choices:
- High resistance when forward or reverse biased
- Low resistance when forward biased, while high resistance when reverse bias
- High resistance when forward biased, while low resistance when reverse bias
- Low resistance when forward or reverse biased


Question: What is the name of the fluorescent material that gives red colour fluorescence?

Choices:
- Zinc silicate.
- Calcium silicate.
- Zinc sulphide.
- Magnesium silicate.


Question: How many bits are required to store one BCD digit ?

Choices:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4


Question: Commutator in DC generator is used for

Choices:
- collecting of current
- reduce losses
- increase efficiency
- convert AC armature current in to DC


Question: 1 F is theoretically equal to

Choices:
- 1 ohm of resistance
- ratio of 1 V to 1 C
- ratio of 1 C to 1 V
- none of these


Question: How many entries will be in the truth table of a 3 input NAND gate ?

Choices:
- 3
- 6
- 8
- 9


Question: In decimal number system what is MSD

Choices:
- First digit from left to right
- First digit from right to left
- Middle digit
- Mean of all digits


Question: In Digital Logic Designs, GAL is abbreviated as

Choices:
- General Advance Logic
- General Array Logic
- Generic Advance Logic
- Generic Array Logic


Question: Inintel 8085A microprocessor ALE signal is made high to

Choices:
- Enable the data bus to be used as low order address bus
- To latch data D0-D7 from data bus
- To disable data bus
- To achieve all the functions listed above


Question: For an SCR gate cathode characteristic is a straight line of 130. For triggered source volume of 15 V and allowable gate power dissipation of 0.5 W compute the gate source resistance?

Choices:
- 111.9 ohm
- 11.19 ohm
- 108 ohm
- 115 ohm


Question: The concept of V/f control of inverters driving induction motors resuls in

Choices:
- constant torque operation
- speed reversal
- reduced magnetic loss
- hormonic elimination


Question: The energy stored in the magnetic field in a solenoid 30 cm long and 3 cm diameter wound with 1000 turns of wire carrying a current at 10 amp, is

Choices:
- 0.015 joule.
- 0.15 joule.
- 0.015 joule.
- 1.15 joule.


Question: While operating on variable frequency supplies, the AC motor requires variable voltage in order to

Choices:
- protect the insulation.
- avoid effect of saturation.
- improve the capabilities of the inverter.
- protect thyristor from dV / dt.


Question: Which of the following windings are necessary in case of all dc machines?

Choices:
- closed winding
- lap winding
- wave winding
- open type winding


Question: Relaxation Voltage controlled oscillators are used to generate

Choices:
- Sinusoidal wave
- Triangular wave
- Sawtooth wave
- Both B and C


Question: The supply frequency usually employed for high frequency eddy current heating is

Choices:
- 1 KHz.
- 5 KHz.
- 10 MHz.
- 10 KHz to 400 KHz.


Question: In the toggle mode a JK flip-flop has

Choices:
- J = 0, K = 0.
- J = 1, K = 1.
- J = 0, K = 1.
- J = 1, K = 0.


Question: Electric drive is becoming more and more popular because

Choices:
- all of below.
- it provide smooth and easy control.
- it is cheaper in cost.
- it is simple and reliable.


Question: A step up chopper has input voltage 110 V and output voltage 150 V. The value of duty cycle is

Choices:
- 0.32.
- 0.67.
- 0.45.
- 0.27.


Question: A Binary number system has how many digits.

Choices:
- 0
- 1
- 2
- 10


Question: Lowest critical frequency is due to pole and it may be present at the origin or nearer to the origin, then the type of network is

Choices:
- LC.
- RL.
- RC.
- Any of the above.


Question: Advantages of open loop control system is/are

Choices:
- simple and economical.
- accurate.
- reliable.
- all of the above.


Question: The voltage induced in an inductor is represented as,

Choices:
- product of its inductance and current through it.
- ratio of its inductance to current through it.
- ratio of current through it to its inductance.
- product of its inductance and rate of change of current through it.


Question: If a Hexadecimal number needs to convert to binary. For each hexadecimal digit, there will be how many bits

Choices:
- 1
- 2
- 4
- 8


Question: Induction heating takes place in

Choices:
- conducting but non-magnetic materials.
- conducting materials which may be either magnetic or non-magentic materials.
- insulating materials.
- conducting and magnetic materials.


Question: In a lap winding dc machine number of conductors are 100 and number of parallel paths are 10. Find the average pitch

Choices:
- 10
- 100
- 50
- 1


Question: Magnetic flux has the unit of

Choices:
- Newton
- Ampere turn
- Weber
- Tesla


Question: In balanced bridge, if the positions of detector and source are interchanged, the bridge will still remain balanced. This can be explained from which theorem

Choices:
- Reciprocity theorem
- Thevinin's theorem
- Norton's theorem
- Compensation theorem


Question: A D-flip-flop is said to be transparent when

Choices:
- the output is LOW
- the output is HIGH
- the output follows clock
- the output follow input


Question: A Lissajous pattern on an oscilloscope has 5 horinzontal tangencies and 2 vertical tangencies. The frequency of horizontal input is 100 Hz. The frequency of the vertical will be

Choices:
- 500 Hz.
- 250 Hz.
- 400 Hz.
- 625 Hz.


Question: Speed control by variation of field flux results in

Choices:
- constant power drive.
- constant torque drive.
- variable power drive.
- none of the above.


Question: Which of the following memories uses one transistor and one capacitor as basic memory unit

Choices:
- SRAM
- DRAM
- Both SRAM and DRAM


Question: What will be the number of lamps, each having 300 lumens, required to obtain an average illuminance of 50 lux on a 4m * 3m rectangular room?

Choices:
- 2
- 4
- 5
- 6


Question: The output of the system has an effect upon the input quantity, then the system is a

Choices:
- open loop control system.
- closed loop control system.
- either A or B.
- none of the above.


Question: A sinusoidal signal is analog signal, because

Choices:
- it can have a number of values between the negative and positive peaks
- it is negative for one half cycle
- it is positive for one half cycle
- it has positive as well as negative values


Question: FM stands for

Choices:
- frequent modulation.
- frequency modulation.
- frequency moderator.
- frequent moderator.


Question: Stack is also known as

Choices:
- FIFO memory
- Flash memory
- LIFO memory
- LILO memory


Question: In Ward-Leonard system, the lower limit of the speed imposed by

Choices:
- Field resistance.
- Armature resistance.
- Residual magnetism of the generator.
- None of above.


Question: Colpitts oscillator is also called as

Choices:
- Tank circuit oscillator
- LC oscillator
- Resonant circuit oscillator
- All of the above


Question: An SCR has half cycle surge current rating of 3000 A for 50 Hz supply. One cycle surge current will be

Choices:
- 1500 A.
- 6000 A.
- 2121.32 A.
- 4242.64 A.


Question: Both the ALU and control section of CPU employ which special purpose storage location?

Choices:
- Buffers
- Decoders
- Accumulators
- Registers


Question: Systematic errors are

Choices:
- environmental errors.
- observational errors.
- instrument errors.
- all of the above.


Question: Which of the following is/are the disadvantages of an open loop control system?

Choices:
- Inaccurate.
- Unreliable.
- both A and B.
- none of the above.


Question: A diode (p-n junction) when reverse biased act as

Choices:
- On Switch
- Zener diode
- Capacitor
- Off Switch


Question: Piezoelectric effect is carried out in

Choices:
- composite filter.
- crystal filter.
- m derived.
- constant k prototype.


Question: The resistivity of the conductor depends on

Choices:
- area of the conductor.
- length of the conductor.
- type of material.
- none of these.


Question: The smallest change in measured variable to which instrument will respond is

Choices:
- resolution.
- accuracy.
- precision.
- sensitivity.


Question: In electronic communications, "AM" stands for

Choices:
- Amp Modification
- Amplitude Method
- Amplitude Modulation
- Ampere Method


Question: Which system is also known as automatic control system?

Choices:
- Open loop control system
- Closed loop control system
- Either A or B
- Nether A nor B


Question: A combinational PLD with a fixed AND array and a programmable OR array is called a

Choices:
- PLD
- PROM
- PAL
- PLA


Question: A null type instrument as compared to a deflected type instrument has

Choices:
- a lower sensitivity.
- a faster response.
- a higher accuracy.
- all of the above.


Question: Length of the cable is doubled, its capacitance C will be

Choices:
- one-fourth.
- one-half.
- doubled.
- unchanged.


Question: Electrons in p-type material of a semi-conductor are called as

Choices:
- either minority carriers or majority carriers
- minority carriers
- majority carriers
- valance carriers


Question: ________ is the most detrimental impurity in the magnetic materials

Choices:
- Carbon.
- Sulphur.
- Oxygen.
- Nitrogen.


Question: Voltage controlled oscillators are used commonly in

Choices:
- Pulse Modulators Frequency Modulators Phase Clocked loops
- Frequency Modulators
- Phase Clocked loops
- All the above


Question: Low frequency supply is necessary for direct core type induction furnaces because

Choices:
- With normal frequeny supply the electromagnetic forces causes severe stirring action in the molten metal.
- Magnetic coupling between the primary and secondary circuit is poor.
- Both A and B.
- None of the above.


Question: The moving coil-meters, damping is provided by

Choices:
- the aluminium frame of the coil.
- the coil spring attached to the moving.
- eddy current disk.
- damping vane in the airtight chamber.


Question: Which of the following is the analogous quantity for mass element in force-voltage analogy?

Choices:
- Resistance.
- Inductance.
- Capacitance.
- All of the above.


Question: A latch is ________ sensitive

Choices:
- both level and edge
- edge
- level


Question: What is used to protect the SCR from over current ?

Choices:
- CB and fuse.
- Heat sink.
- Snubber circuit.
- Voltage clamping device.


Question: The errors mainly caused by human mistakes are

Choices:
- gross error.
- instrumental error.
- observational error.
- systematic error.


Question: Electrical analogous quantity for dash-pot in force-current analogy is

Choices:
- resistance.
- conductance.
- inductance.
- capacitance.


Question: Which lamp has the best Colour Rendering Index (CRI)?

Choices:
- LED
- Fluorescent
- Incandescent
- High pressure sodium vapour


Question: Power dissipation in ideal inductor is

Choices:
- Maximum
- Minimum
- Zero
- A finite value


Question: For intermittent work which of the following furnace is suitable?

Choices:
- Core less furnace.
- Indirect arc furnace.
- Either of above.
- Nither of above.


Question: In electrical resistance welding material of electrode should have

Choices:
- higher electrical conductivities.
- higher thermal conductivities.
- sufficient strength to sustain high pressure at elevated temperatures.
- all of above.


Question: Which of the following are the passive elements?

Choices:
- Resistor
- Bulb
- Both
- None of these.


Question: The main advantage of dielectric heating is that

Choices:
- heating occurs in the material itself.
- heating occurs due to high frequency.
- it can be used for drying the explosives.
- None of the above.


Question: Materials used in heat sink should have

Choices:
- high thermal conductivity.
- large surface area.
- high melting point.
- All of these.


Question: Conductor is static and the field is varying then emf will be induced. This principle is called

Choices:
- virtually induced emf.
- dynamically induced emf.
- static induced emf.
- none of these


Question: Four identical alternators each are rated for 20 MVA, 11 KV having a subtransient reactance of 16% are working in parallel. The short circuit level at the busbar is

Choices:
- 500 MVA
- 400 MVA
- 125 MVA
- 100 MVA


Question: According to the Bohr model, an electron gains or losses energy only by

Choices:
- moving faster or slower in an allowed orbit.
- jumping from one allowed orbit to another.
- being completely removed from an atom.
- jumping from one atom to another atom.


Question: A three-state buffer has the following output states

Choices:
- 1, 0, float
- High, Low, Float
- Both A and B
- Set, Reset, Halt


Question: By using which of the following elements, mechanical translational systems are obtained?

Choices:
- mass element
- spring element
- dash-pot
- all of the above


Question: Four capacitors each of 40 µF are connected in parallel, the equivalent capacitance of the system will be

Choices:
- 160 µF
- 10 µF
- 40 µF
- 5 µF


Question: The resistance of a conductor of diameter d and length l is R Ω. If the diameter of the conductor is halved and its length is doubled, the resistance will be

Choices:
- R Ω
- 2R Ω
- 4R Ω
- 8R Ω


Question: A single phase full bridge inverter can operated in load commutation mode in case load consist of

Choices:
- RL.
- RLC underdamped.
- RLC overdamped.
- RLC critically damped.


Question: A microprocessor is ALU

Choices:
- and control unit on a single chip.
- and memory on a single chip.
- register unit and I/O device on a single chip.
- register unit and control unit on a single chip.


Question: To obtain a high value of capacitance, the permittivity of dielectric medium should be

Choices:
- low
- zero
- high
- unity


Question: Deflection method direct measurements are most widely used as these are

Choices:
- least time consuming.
- most simple.
- most simple and least time consuming.
- most accurate.


Question: Purely mechanical instrument cannot be used for dynamic measurements because they have

Choices:
- high inertia.
- higher response time.
- large time constant.
- all of the above.


Question: Advantages of higher transmission voltage is/are

Choices:
- Power transfer capability of the transmission line is increased
- Transmission line losses are reduced
- Area of cross section and volume of the conductor is reduced
- all of the above


Question: Under over voltage condition impedance offered by the voltage clamping device is

Choices:
- high.
- low.
- moderate.
- infinity.


Question: A long wire composed of a smooth round conductor runs above and parallel to the ground (assumed to be a large conducting plane). A high voltage exists between the conductor and the ground. The maximum electric stress occurs at

Choices:
- lower surface of the conductor.
- upper surface of the conductor.
- the ground surface.
- midway between the conductor and ground.


Question: In a dc machine 6 pole wave winding is used. The number of parallel paths are?

Choices:
- 6
- 4
- 2
- 1


Question: Which of the following is a digital device

Choices:
- Regulator of a fan
- Microphone
- Resistance of a material
- Light switch


Question: Instantaneous power in inductor is proportional to the

Choices:
- product of the instantaneous current and rate of change of current.
- square of instantaneous current.
- square of the rate of change of current.
- temperature of the inductor.


Question: Which of the following is a variable displacement transducer?

Choices:
- tachometer
- potentiometer
- synchros
- none of the above


Question: Five capacitors each of 5 µF are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance of the system will be

Choices:
- 5 µF
- 25 µF
- 10 µF
- 1 µF


Question: Susceptibility is negative for

Choices:
- non magnetic substances.
- diamagnetic substances.
- ferromagnetic substances.
- none of above.


Question: One of the following is the primary function of an oscillator

Choices:
- produces sinusoidal oscillations
- generates non sinusoidal waveforms
- generates sustained oscillations at a constant amplitude and specific frequency
- none of the above


Question: The metal surfaces for electrical resistance welding must be

Choices:
- rough.
- clean.
- moistened
- coloured


Question: The latching current of SCR is 20 mA. Its holding current will be

Choices:
- 23 mA.
- 40 mA.
- 10 mA.
- 60 mA.


Question: In force-current analogy, electrical analogous quantity for displacement (x) is

Choices:
- voltage.
- inductance.
- capacitance.
- flux.


Question: Feedback circuit in an oscillator can be accomplished by

Choices:
- Resistive coupling between input and output
- Capacitive coupling between input and output
- Inductive coupling between input and output
- Any one or combinations of the above methods


Question: Lowest critical frequency is due to zero and it may be present at the origin or nearer to the origin, then the type of network is

Choices:
- LC circuit.
- RC circuit.
- RLC circuit.
- RL Circuit.


Question: What is the value of dielectric constant of air?

Choices:
- Less than 1
- 0.
- 1.
- none of these.


Question: Temperature variation is a/an

Choices:
- Digital quantity
- Analog quantity
- Either Digital or Analog quantity


Question: The illumination at a point 5 meters below a lamp in 6 lux. The candle power of the lamp is

Choices:
- 30
- 140.
- 150.
- 200.


Question: For a dc machine shunt resistance and armature resistance values are

Choices:
- high and high
- high and low
- low and low
- low and high


Question: The change of cross sectional area of conductor in magnetic field will affect

Choices:
- reluctance of conductor.
- resistance of conductor.
- (A) and (B) both in the same way.
- none of above.


Question: Which of the following is used in SCR to protect from high dV / dt?

Choices:
- Snubber circuit.
- Fuse.
- Equalizing circuit.
- Circuit breaker.


Question: What are the sets of commands in a program which are not translated into machine instructions during assembly process, called?

Choices:
- Mnemonics
- Directives
- Identifiers
- Operands


Question: Speed of data transmission in 4-G network of telecom is

Choices:
- 386 kbps - 2 mbps.
- 2 mbps.
- 2 mbps – 1 gbps.
- 100 mbps - 1 gbps.


Question: Which of the followings is/are active element?

Choices:
- Voltage source
- Current source
- Both
- None of these.


Question: Electrical analogous quantity for spring element (K) in force-voltage analogy is

Choices:
- L
- R
- 1/C
- C


Question: A quartz crystal oscillator consists of

Choices:
- only series resonant frequency.
- only parallel resonant frequency.
- both series and parallel frequencies.
- neither series nor parallel frequency.


Question: Which of the following oscillators are used for low frequency (LF) applications

Choices:
- LC oscillators
- RC oscillators
- Both LC and RC Oscillators


Question: The solid angle subtended by an area of 2400 cm^2 on the surface of a sphere of diameter 1.2 m is

Choices:
- 3 / 2.
- 1 / 3.
- 2 / 3.
- 2 / 5.


Question: Relative error is same as

Choices:
- ratio of absolute error and true value.
- absolute error.
- true error.
- none of the above.


Question: If holding current of a thyristor is 2 mA then latching current should be

Choices:
- 0.01 A.
- 0.002 A.
- 0.009 A.
- 0.004 A.


Question: In an intel 8085A, which is the first machine cycle of an instruction?

Choices:
- An op-code fetch cycle
- A memory read cycle
- A memory write cycle
- An I/O read cycle


Question: Which of the following are the disadvantages of a closed loop control system?

Choices:
- Reduces the overall gain.
- Complex and costly.
- Oscillatory response.
- All of the above.


Question: Poles and zeros are arranged alternatively on negative real axis, then type of network is/are

Choices:
- LC network.
- RC network.
- RL network.
- Both 2 and 3.


Question: The magnetisation and applied field in ferromagnetic materials are related

Choices:
- sinusoidally.
- non linearly.
- linearly.
- parabolically.


Question: Thin laminations are used in a machine in order to reduce

Choices:
- Eddy current losses
- Hysteresis losses
- Both A and B
- Copper losses


Question: A metal surface with 1 meter radius and surface charge density of 20 coulombs / m2 is enclosed in a 10 m side cube. The total outward electric displacement normal to the surface of the cube is

Choices:
- 40π coulombs.
- 80π coulombs.
- 10π coulombs.
- none of these.


Question: In binary number system the first digit (bit) from right to left is called as

Choices:
- LSB, Least Significant Bit
- MSB, Most Significant Bit
- First Bit
- Last Bit


Question: In two wattmeter method of power measurement if the total power is measured by one wattmeter only then power factor of the system is

Choices:
- 0.
- 0.5.
- 1.
- none of above.


Question: A 0 - 100 V voltmeter has a guaranteed accuracy of 2 % of full scale reading. The voltage measured by the voltmeter is 75 V. The limiting error is in percentage

Choices:
- 3.33 %.
- 2.66 %.
- 2 %.
- 1 %.


Question: Which of the following methods is/are used for reactive or voltage compensation

Choices:
- shunt capacitor
- series capacitor
- generation excitation control
- all of the above


Question: The ROM programmed during manufacturing process itself is called

Choices:
- MROM
- PROM
- EPROM
- EEPROM


Question: In 8085 name/names of the 16 bit registers is/are

Choices:
- stack pointer.
- program counter.
- both A and B.
- none of these.


Question: Stability of a transmission line can be increased by

Choices:
- shunt capacitor
- series capacitor
- shunt reactor
- both A and B


Question: Snubber circuit is used with SCR

Choices:
- in series.
- in parallel.
- either series or parallel.
- anti parallel.


Question: The number of rings in the Bohr model of any element is determined by what?

Choices:
- Column number on periodic table.
- Atomic mass.
- Row number on periodic table.
- Atomic number.


Question: Silicon and Germanium are ________ elements.

Choices:
- trivalant
- pentavalant
- hexavalant
- tetravalant


Question: The number of output pins in 8085 microprocessors are

Choices:
- 27.
- 40.
- 21.
- 19.


Question: If P is the power of a star connected system then what will be power of an equivalent delta connected system?

Choices:
- P
- 3P
- P/3
- None of the above


Question: Which oscillators are easy to fabricate in a monolithic IC?

Choices:
- Crystal oscillator.
- Hartley oscillator.
- Wien bridge oscillator.
- Relaxation oscillator.


Question: If all the elements in a particular network are linear, then the superposition theorem would hold, when the excitation is

Choices:
- DC only
- AC only
- Either AC or DC
- An Impulse


Question: The feedback factor of a Wien bridge oscillator using Op-Amp is

Choices:
- 1/3
- 1/4
- 1/2
- 1


Question: The length of bus cycle in 8086/8088 is four clock cycles, T1, T2, T3, T4 and an indeterminate number of wait state clock cycles denoted by Tw. The wait states are always inserted between

Choices:
- T1 & T2
- T2 & T3
- T3 & T4
- T4 & T1


Question: Which of the following is not a sinusoidal oscillator?

Choices:
- LC oscillator
- RC phase shift oscillator
- Relaxation oscillator
- Crystal oscillator


Question: A wire carrying current is bent in the form of a circular loop. Then the magnetic field around each portion of the wire will be

Choices:
- parallel to the plane of the wire.
- perpendicular to the circumference of the wire.
- parallel to half portion and perpendicular for the other half.
- none of above.


Question: In a population of giraffes, an environmental change occurs that favors individuals that are tallest. As a result, more of the taller individuals are able to obtain nutrients and survive to pass along their genetic information. This is an example of

Choices:
- directional selection.
- stabilizing selection.
- sexual selection.
- disruptive selection.


Question: Which of the changes below following the start codon in an mRNA would most likely have the greatest deleterious effect?

Choices:
- a deletion of a single nucleotide
- a deletion of a nucleotide triplet
- a single nucleotide substitution of the nucleotide occupying the first codon position
- a single nucleotide substitution of the nucleotide occupying the third codon position


Question: The energy given up by electrons as they move through the electron transport chain is used to

Choices:
- break down glucose
- make glucose
- produce ATP
- make NADH


Question: During the period when life is believed to have begun, the atmosphere on primitive Earth contained abundant amounts of all the following gases EXCEPT

Choices:
- oxygen
- hydrogen
- ammonia
- methane


Question: Convergent evolution is best exemplified by which of the following?

Choices:
- The pectoral fins of fish and the front legs of cats
- The presence of a notochord in all chordate embryos
- The wings of an insect and the wings of a bird
- The leaves of an oak tree and the spines of a cactus


Question: Which of the following would most likely provide examples of mitotic cell divisions?

Choices:
- cross section of muscle tissue
- cross section of an anther (site of pollen production in a flower)
- longitudinal section of a shoot tip
- cross section of a leaf


Question: Invertebrate immune systems possess which of the following?

Choices:
- Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
- Phagocytes
- B-cells
- Helper T-cells


Question: Two unrelated species evolve in a way that makes them more similar.

Choices:
- Divergent evolution
- Convergent evolution
- Parallel evolution
- Coevolution


Question: Which of the following is the most likely benefit of periodic natural wildfires in some forest ecosystems?

Choices:
- The fires remove dead and decaying plant matter, reducing the risk of more intense and destructive fires.
- The fires leach nutrients from the soil‚ preventing the germination of plants that might compete with native species.
- The fires drive off herbivores whose plant-based diets reduce the amount of vegetation.
- The fires dry out the soil and decrease the chance of flooding after heavy rains.


Question: In a hypothetical environment, fishes called pike-cichlids are visual predators of algae-eating fish (i.e., they locate their prey by sight). If a population of algae-eaters experiences predation pressure from pike-cichlids, which of the following should least likely be observed in the algae-eater population over the course of many generations?

Choices:
- Selection for drab coloration of the algae-eaters
- Selection for nocturnal algae-eaters (active only at night)
- Selection for larger female algae-eaters, bearing broods composed of more, and larger, young
- Selection for algae-eaters that become sexually mature at smaller overall body sizes


Question: A man contracts the same flu strain for the second time in a single winter season. The second time he experiences fewer symptoms and recovers more quickly. Which cells are responsible for this rapid recovery?

Choices:
- Helper T cells
- Cytotoxic T cells
- Memory cells
- Plasma cells


Question: The same gene that causes various coat patterns in wild and domesticated cats also causes the cross-eyed condition in these cats, the cross-eyed condition being slightly maladaptive. In a hypothetical environment, the coat pattern that is associated with crossed eyes is highly adaptive, with the result that both the coat pattern and the cross-eyed condition increase in a feline population over time. Which statement is supported by these observations?

Choices:
- Evolution is progressive and tends toward a more perfect population.
- Phenotype is often the result of compromise.
- Natural selection reduces the frequency of maladaptive genes in populations over the course of time.
- Polygenic inheritance is generally maladaptive, and should become less common in future generations.


Question: Which of the following statements is correct?

Choices:
- Water flows from hypertonic to hypotonic.
- Germinating seeds use less oxygen than do nongerminating seeds.
- The rate of transpiration decreases with an increase in air movement.
- Smaller DNA fragments migrate more rapidly than do larger DNA fragments on gel electrophoresis.


Question: A gas phase is generally absent from which of the following biogeochemical cycles?

Choices:
- Water
- Carbon
- Sulfur
- Phosphorus


Question: Which of the following is a property that is shared by Zika fever‚ West Nile fever‚ and malaria?

Choices:
- The diseases are caused by viruses.
- The diseases occur only in individuals who visit or live in tropical countries.
- The pathogens that cause the diseases have developed resistance to antibiotics.
- The pathogens that cause the diseases are primarily transmitted by the bite of an infected mosquito.


Question: If the HMS Beagle had completely bypassed the Galapagos Islands, Darwin would have had a much poorer understanding of the

Choices:
- relative stability of a well-adapted population's numbers over many generations.
- ability of populations to undergo modification as they adapt to a particular environment.
- tendency of organisms to produce the exact number of offspring that the environment can support.
- unlimited resources that support population growth in most natural environments.


Question: Which of the following statements about lipids is correct?

Choices:
- Unsaturated fatty acids are linked to heart disease.
- Lipids make up most cell surface receptors.
- Phospholipids are water soluble.
- Steroids are lipids that consist of glycerol and fatty acids.


Question: All of the following are examples of connective tissue EXCEPT

Choices:
- ligaments
- muscle
- blood
- cartilage


Question: The light reactions of photosynthesis supply the Calvin cycle with which of the following?

Choices:
- The light reactions provide oxygen for the light-independent reactions.
- ATP and NADPH provide the power and raw materials for the Calvin cycle.
- Water entering the plant through the roots provides hydrogen directly to the Calvin cycle.
- CO2 released by the light-dependent reactions provides the raw material for the Calvin cycle.


Question: When the first tiny prokaryotic cell took up residence inside a larger prokaryotic cell, it heralded the advent of the eukaryotic cell and led to an explosion of new life on Earth. Since then, most cells on Earth have internal organelles. Which of the following best summarizes an advantage of having internal membranes and organelles?

Choices:
- DNA can reproduce more efficiently.
- Even though prokaryotes do not have mitochondria, they contain structures that carry out the same function.
- Organelles separate specific reactions in the cell and increase metabolic efficiency.
- Compartmentalization enables prokaryotes to reproduce more quickly.


Question: Which of the following is correct about vaccination?

Choices:
- It increases the number of different receptors that recognize a particular pathogen.
- It increases the number of different macrophages specific to the antigen.
- It increases the number of epitopes that the immune system can recognize.
- It increases the number of lymphocytes with receptors that can recognize and bind to the antigen.


Question: The calypso orchid, Calypso bulbosa, grows in close association with mycorrhizae fungi. The fungi penetrate the roots of the flower and take advantage of the plant's food resources. The fungi concentrate rare minerals, such as phosphates, in the roots and make them readily accessible to the orchid. This situation is an example of

Choices:
- parasitism
- commensalism
- mutualism
- endosymbiosis


Question: Mules are relatively long-lived and hardy organisms that cannot, generally speaking, perform successful meiosis. Consequently, which statement about mules is true?

Choices:
- They have a relative evolutionary fitness of zero.
- Their offspring have less genetic variation than the parents.
- Mutations cannot occur in their genomes.
- If crossing-over happens in mules, then it must be limited to prophase of mitosis.


Question: ADH is a hormone secreted by the kidneys that reduces the amount of water excreted in the urine. ADH is released in times of dehydration. This is an example of

Choices:
- innate behavior.
- maintaining homeostasis.
- failure to respond to the environment.
- positive feedback.


Question: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

Choices:
- thyroxine increases the rate of metabolism
- insulin decreases storage of glycogen
- vasopressin stimulates water reabsorption in the kidney
- epinephrine increases blood sugar levels and heart rate


Question: Which of the following statements best describes what a Barr body is and its significance?

Choices:
- It is an inactivated Y chromosome and results in a man being sterile.
- It is an inactivated Y chromosome, and the person who has it appears female.
- It is an inactivated X chromosome and results in females with half their cells having one X inactivated and the other half of their cells having the other X inactivated.
- It is an inactivated X chromosome and results in females who are sterile.


Question: A heterotroph

Choices:
- obtains its energy from sunlight, harnessed by pigments
- obtains its energy by oxidizing organic molecules
- makes organic molecules from CO2
- obtains its energy by consuming exclusively autotrophs


Question: Which of the following reactions occurs in the forward direction during glycolysis but in the reverse direction during fermentation?

Choices:
- pyruvate → lactate
- pyruvate → ethanol
- NAD+ + H+ + 2e- → NADH
- ADP + P → ATP


Question: A researcher grows a population of ferns in her laboratory. She notices, after a few generations, a new variant that has a distinct phenotype. When she tries to breed the original phenotype with the new one, no offspring are produced. When she breeds the new variants, however, offspring that look like the new variant result. What originally caused the change in the variant?

Choices:
- Karyotyping
- Balance polymorphism
- Mutation
- Polyploidy


Question: Which of the following statements most accurately explains what EcoR1 is?

Choices:
- It is a bacterium that lives in the human large intestine.
- It is the best-studied bacteriophage, a virus that attacks E. coli.
- It is a restriction enzyme extracted from E. coli.
- It is a type of DNA used extensively in research.


Question: Which of the following pairs of structures is least likely to represent homology?

Choices:
- The wings of a bat and the arms of a human
- The hemoglobin of a baboon and that of a gorilla
- The mitochondria of a plant and those of an animal
- The wings of a bird and those of an insect


Question: The development of an egg without fertilization is known as

Choices:
- meiosis
- parthenogenesis
- embryogenesis
- vegetative propagation


Question: In minks, the gene for brown fur (B) is dominant over the gene for silver fur (b). Which set of genotypes represents a cross that could produce offspring with silver fur from parents that both have brown fur?

Choices:
- BB BB
- BB Bb
- Bb Bb
- Bb bb


Question: Male satin bowerbirds adorn structures that they build, called "bowers," with parrot feathers, flowers, and other bizarre ornaments in order to attract females. Females inspect the bowers and, if suitably impressed, allow males to mate with them. The evolution of this male behavior is due to

Choices:
- frequency-dependent selection.
- artificial selection.
- sexual selection.
- natural selection.


Question: Which of the following best explains why a population is described as the evolutionary unit?

Choices:
- Genetic changes can only occur at the population level.
- The gene pool in a population remains fixed over time.
- Natural selection affects individuals, not populations.
- Individuals cannot evolve, but populations can.


Question: If, on average, 46% of the loci in a species' gene pool are heterozygous, then the average homozygosity of the species should be

Choices:
- 23%
- 46%
- 54%
- 92%


Question: Which of these is a statement that Darwin would have rejected?

Choices:
- Environmental change plays a role in evolution.
- The smallest entity that can evolve is an individual organism.
- Individuals can acquire new characteristics as they respond to new environments or situations.
- Inherited variation in a population is a necessary precondition for natural selection to operate.


Question: Which of the following contributes the MOST to genetic variability in a population?

Choices:
- Sporulation
- Binary fission
- Vegetative propagation
- Mutation


Question: Which of the following statements most detracts from the claim that the human appendix is a completely vestigial organ?

Choices:
- The appendix can be surgically removed with no immediate ill effects.
- The appendix might have been larger in fossil hominids.
- The appendix has a substantial amount of defensive lymphatic tissue.
- Individuals with a larger-than-average appendix leave fewer offspring than those with a below-average-sized appendix.


Question: According to the heterotroph hypothesis, which event had to occur before oxygen filled the atmosphere?

Choices:
- Heterotrophs had to remove carbon dioxide from the air.
- Autotrophs, which make their own food, had to evolve.
- Heterotrophs had to evolve.
- Autotrophs had to convert atmospheric nitrogen to nitrate.


Question: Two related species evolve in a way that makes them less similar.

Choices:
- Divergent evolution
- Convergent evolution
- Parallel evolution
- Coevolution


Question: Which of the following statements best summarizes evolution as it is viewed today?

Choices:
- It is goal-directed.
- It represents the result of selection for acquired characteristics.
- It is synonymous with the process of gene flow.
- It is the differential survival and reproduction of the most-fit phenotypes.


Question: Mosquitoes resistant to the pesticide DDT first appeared in India in 1959 within 15 years of widespread spraying of the insecticide. Which of the following statement best explains how the resistant mosquitoes arose?

Choices:
- Some mosquitoes experienced a mutation after being exposed to DDT that made them resistant to the insecticide. Then their population expanded because these moquitoes had no competition.
- Some mosquitoes were already resistant to DDT when DDT was first sprayed. Then their population expanded because all the susceptible mosquitoes had been exterminated.
- DDT is generally a very effective insecticide. One can only conclude that it was manufactured improperly.
- Although DDT is effective against a wide range of insects, it is not effective against mosquitoes.


Question: DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of corresponding genes in chimpanzees. The most likely explanation for this result is that

Choices:
- humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.
- humans evolved from chimpanzees.
- chimpanzees evolved from humans.
- convergent evolution led to the DNA similarities.


Question: Yeast cells carry out both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. A yeast cell that is fed on glucose is moved from an aerobic to an anaerobic environment. Which of the following statements is correct and gives the correct reason for it?

Choices:
- The cell dies because it cannot make ATP.
- The cell would need to consume glucose at a much greater rate because aerobic respiration is much more efficient as compared with anaerobic respiration.
- The cell would need to consume another food source other than glucose because it will not be able to make adequate ATP with only glucose.
- The cell will begin to divide rapidly because larger cells require more oxygen and glucose than smaller ones.


Question: A researcher conducts a survey of a biome and finds 35 percent more species than she has found in any other biome. Which biome is she most likely to be in?

Choices:
- Tundra
- Tiaga
- Tropical rainforest
- Temperate deciduous forest


Question: Which statement about variation is true?

Choices:
- All phenotypic variation is the result of genotypic variation.
- All genetic variation produces phenotypic variation.
- All nucleotide variability results in neutral variation.
- All new alleles are the result of nucleotide variability.


Question: Which of the following best explains why people can digest starch but cannot digest cellulose even though both molecules are composed of glucose monomers?

Choices:
- The bonds linking the monomers of starch differ in shape from the bonds linking the monomers of cellulose.
- Molecules of starch are much smaller than molecules of cellulose.
- Starch is an intracellular molecule, while cellulose is an extracellular molecule.
- Starch is hydrated by water, but cellulose is not.


Question: In humans, fertilization normally occurs in the

Choices:
- ovary
- fallopian tube
- uterus
- placenta


Question: Which of the following is a biotic factor that could affect the growth rate of a population?

Choices:
- Volcanic eruption
- Glacier melting
- Destruction of the ozone layer
- Sudden reduction in the animal food resource


Question: As a young biologist, Charles Darwin had expected the living plants of temperate South America would resemble those of temperate Europe, but he was surprised to find that they more closely resembled the plants of tropical South America. The biological explanation for this observation is most properly associated with the field of

Choices:
- meteorology.
- embryology.
- vertebrate anatomy.
- biogeography.


Question: It has been observed that organisms on islands are different from, but closely related to, similar forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as evidence that

Choices:
- 0
- common environments are inhabited by the same organisms.
- the islands were originally part of the continent.
- the island forms and mainland forms are converging.


Question: The Krebs cycle in humans occurs in the

Choices:
- mitochondrial matrix
- inner mitochondrial membrane
- outer mitochondrial membrane
- intermembrane space


Question: Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails, as do fish, even though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are

Choices:
- homologous.
- examples of convergent evolution.
- adaptations to a common environment.
- B and C only


Question: During which phase of the cell cycle does the quantity of DNA in a eukaryotic cell typically double?

Choices:
- G_1
- G_2
- M
- S


Question: Two trees of the same species growing close together will use the same resources, such as light, water, and nutrients. If any of these resources becomes limiting, then each tree will receive less of it than if the trees were growing farther apart. This scenario is an example of which of the following?

Choices:
- Parasitism
- Commensalism
- Natural selection
- Intraspecific competition


Question: Short sequence by promoter that assists transcription by interacting with regulatory proteins.

Choices:
- Enhancer
- Repressor
- Operator
- Promoter


Question: Catastrophism, meaning the regular occurrence of geological or meteorological disturbances (catastrophes), was Cuvier's attempt to explain the existence of

Choices:
- evolution.
- the fossil record.
- uniformitarianism.
- the origin of new species.


Question: Hydrangea flowers have one gene for flower color. Plants of the same genetic variety have flowers that range in color from blue to pink with the color varying due to the type of soil in which they are grown. Which of the following statement best explains this phenomenon?

Choices:
- The alleles for flower color show incomplete dominance where neither trait is dominant; expression of the genes shows a blending of traits.
- The alleles for flower color are codominant; both traits show depending on the environment.
- In this case, the environment alters the expression of a trait.
- The genes for flower color show polygenic inheritance.


Question: When imbalances occur in the sex ratio of sexual species that have two sexes (i.e., other than a 50:50 ratio), the members of the minority sex often receive a greater proportion of care and resources from parents than do the offspring of the majority sex. This is most clearly an example of

Choices:
- sexual selection.
- disruptive selection.
- balancing selection.
- frequency-dependent selection.


Question: Although mutations occur at a regular and predictable rate, which of the following statements is the LEAST likely reason the frequency of mutation appears to be low?

Choices:
- Some mutations produce alleles that are recessive and may not be expressed.
- Some undesirable phenotypic traits may be prevented from reproducing.
- Some mutations cause such drastic phenotypic changes that they are removed from the gene pool.
- The predictable rate of mutation results in ongoing variability in a gene pool.


Question: Crossover would most likely occur in which situation?

Choices:
- Two genes (1 and 2) are located right next to each other on chromosome A.
- Gene 1 is located on chromosome A, and gene 2 is on chromosome B.
- Genes 1 and 2 are located near each other on the X chromosome.
- Gene 1 is located on chromosome A; gene 2 is located far away but on the same chromosome.


Question: Which aspects of cell structure best reveals the unity of all life?

Choices:
- All cells are surrounded by a plasma membrane.
- All cells have at least one nucleus.
- All cells carry out cellular respiration in mitochondria.
- The surface-to-volume ratio of all cells is the same.


Question: This biome contains plants whose roots cannot go deep due to the presence of a permafrost.

Choices:
- Desert
- Tundra
- Taiga
- Deciduous forests


Question: This biome contains trees that drop their leaves during the winter months.

Choices:
- Desert
- Tundra
- Taiga
- Deciduous forests


Question: A change in a neuron membrane potential from +50 millivolts to -70 millivolts is considered

Choices:
- depolarization
- repolarization
- hyperpolarization
- an action potential


Question: All of the following play a role in morphogenesis EXCEPT

Choices:
- apoptosis
- homeotic genes
- operons
- inductive effects


Question: Most animal cells, regardless of species, are relatively small and about the same size. Relative to larger cells, why is this?

Choices:
- Smaller cells avoid excessive osmosis and subsequent lysis.
- Smaller cells have a smaller surface-to-volume ratio.
- Smaller cells have a larger surface-to-volume ratio.
- Smaller cells fit together more tightly.


Question: Which of the following is (are) required when performing a polymerase chain reaction (P C R) on a DNA sample?

Choices:
- Reverse transcriptase
- A vacuum chamber
- Primers complementary to certain portions of the DNA
- DNA ligase


Question: Each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations, but which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence?

Choices:
- Mutation
- Non-random mating
- Genetic drift
- Natural selection


Question: No two people are genetically identical, except for identical twins. The chief cause of genetic variation among human individuals is

Choices:
- new mutations that occurred in the preceding generation.
- the reshuffling of alleles in sexual reproduction.
- genetic drift due to the small size of the population.
- geographic variation within the population.


Question: Two genes (B and E) determine coat color in Labrador retrievers. Alleles B and b code for how much melanin is present. The dominant allele B codes for black fur, the recessive allele b codes for brown hair. A second gene consisting of two alleles, E and e, codes for the deposition of pigment in the hair. In this case, the alleles for pigment deposition (E or e) are said to be epistatic to the gene that codes for black or brown pigment. If the dominant allele (E) is not present, regardless of the genotype at the black/brown locus, the animal's fur will be yellow.

Choices:
- BBEe will be brown.
- BbEe will be brown.
- Bbee will be brown.
- BBee will be yellow.


Question: Which of the following statements is NOT correct about ancient Earth?

Choices:
- Earth was formed about 4? billion years ago.
- Amino acid synthesis could have been stimulated by volcanic eruption.
- The first cells formed about 3? billion years ago, according to the fossil record.
- The presence of free oxygen facilitated the rapid formation of organic molecules.


Question: In modern terminology, diversity is understood to be a result of genetic variation. Sources of variation for evolution include all of the following except

Choices:
- mistakes in translation of structural genes.
- mistakes in DNA replication.
- translocations and mistakes in meiosis.
- recombination at fertilization.


Question: DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Today, instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. Which of these would have been required for this pest eradication effort to be successful in the long run?

Choices:
- Larger doses of DDT should have been applied.
- All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time.
- The frequency of DDT application should have been higher.
- None of the individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them resistant to DDT.


Question: Within a few weeks of treatment with the drug 3TC, a patient's HIV population consists entirely of 3TC-resistant viruses. How can this result best be explained?

Choices:
- HIV can change its surface proteins and resist vaccines.
- The patient must have become reinfected with 3TC-resistant viruses.
- HIV began making drug-resistant versions of reverse transcriptase in response to the drug.
- A few drug-resistant viruses were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency.


Question: The higher the proportion of loci that are "fixed" in a population, the lower is that population's

Choices:
- nucleotide variability.
- genetic polyploidy.
- average heterozygosity.
- A and C only


Question: The resting membrane potential depends on which of the following? I. Active transport II. Selective permeability III. Differential distribution of ions across the axonal membrane

Choices:
- III only
- I and II only
- II and III only
- I, II, and III


Question: Which of the following statements about the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is correct?

Choices:
- They provide the carbon that becomes incorporated into sugar.
- They produce PGA, which is converted to glucose by carbon fixation in the light-independent reactions.
- Water is split apart, providing hydrogen ions and electrons to NADP for temporary storage.
- They occur in the stroma of chloroplasts.


Question: When we say that an individual organism has a greater fitness than another individual, we specifically mean that the organism

Choices:
- lives longer than others of its species.
- competes for resources more successfully than others of its species.
- mates more frequently than others of its species.
- leaves more viable offspring than others of its species.


Question: Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Those producing fewer or more than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this?

Choices:
- artificial selection
- directional selection
- stabilizing selection
- disruptive selection


Question: Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar fashion to perform the same function. Which information would best help distinguish between an explanation based on homology versus one based on convergent evolution?

Choices:
- The two species live at great distance from each other.
- The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical.
- The sizes of the structures in adult members of both species are similar in size.
- Both species are well adapted to their particular environments.


Question: When driving from east to west in the U.S. from a forest ecosystem to grasslands, trees gradually give way to grasses. Which of the following is the critical factor responsible for this shift?

Choices:
- Amount of sunlight
- Availability of oxygen
- Availability of water
- Length of growing season


Question: Within a cell, the amount of protein synthesized using a given mRNA molecule depends in part on which of the following?

Choices:
- DNA methylation suppresses the expression of genes.
- Transcription factors mediate the binding of RNA polymerase and the initiation of transcription, which will determine how much protein is manufactured.
- The speed with which mRNA is degraded will determine how much protein is synthesized.
- The location and number of ribosomes in a cell will solely determine how much protein is synthesized.


Question: All of the following are modes of asexual reproduction EXCEPT

Choices:
- sporulation
- fission
- budding
- meiosis


Question: A rooster with gray feathers and a hen with the same phenotype produce 17 gray, 7 black, and 8 white chicks. What is the simplest explanation for the inheritance of these colors in chickens?

Choices:
- The trait for gray is epistatic over the trait for black.
- The trait for gray is epistatic over the trait for white.
- The traits for black and white color demonstrate incomplete dominance.
- The traits for black and white color demonstrate codominance.


Question: Which of the following statements about cellular respiration is correct?

Choices:
- Most CO2 produced during cellular respiration is released from glycolysis.
- Protons are pumped through ATP synthase by active transport.
- The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain is NAD+.
- ATP is formed because an endergonic reaction is coupled with an exergonic reaction.


Question: Which of the following principles is NOT part of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection?

Choices:
- Evolution is a gradual process that occurs over a long period of time.
- Every population has tremendous variation.
- Mutations are the main source of all variation in a population.
- Organisms will overpopulate area, giving rise to competition.


Question: In Darwin's thinking, the more closely related two different organisms are, the

Choices:
- more similar their habitats are.
- less similar their DNA sequences are.
- more recently they shared a common ancestor.
- less likely they are to have the same genes in common.


Question: Which of the following is most likely to increase the rate of diffusion of an uncharged solute across the plasma membrane of a cell?

Choices:
- Decreasing the number of different solutes in the solution that bathes the cells
- Increasing the concentration gradient of the solute across the membrane
- Increasing the ratio of phospholipids to proteins in the membrane
- Decreasing the membrane potential across the membrane


Question: In a certain pond, there are long-finned fish and short-finned fish. A horrific summer thunderstorm leads to the death of a disproportionate number of long-finned fish to the point where the relative frequency of the two forms has drastically shifted. This is an example of

Choices:
- gene flow.
- natural selection.
- genetic drift.
- stabilizing selection.


Question: A form of species interaction in which one of the species benefits while the other is unaffected is called

Choices:
- parasitism.
- mutualism.
- commensalism.
- symbiosis.


Question: Chemical substances released by organisms that elicit a physiological or behavioral response in other members of the same species are known as

Choices:
- auxins
- hormones
- pheromones
- enzymes


Question: In reference to a segment of DNA, which of the following molecules contains the fewest number of nucleotides?

Choices:
- a single strand of the original DNA segment
- a single strand of the original DNA segment after a point mutation
- the primary RNA transcript (before splicing) from the original DNA
- a single strand of complementary DNA (cDNA) made from the original DNA


Question: All viruses contain at least these two principal components:

Choices:
- DNA and proteins
- nucleic acid and a capsid
- DNA and cell membrane
- RNA and cell wall


Question: Imagine an organism whose 2n = 96. Meiosis would leave this organism’s cells with how many chromosomes?

Choices:
- 192
- 96
- 48
- 24


Question: Which of the following represents an idea that Darwin learned from the writings of Thomas Malthus?

Choices:
- All species are fixed in the form in which they are created.
- Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply normally allows.
- Earth changed over the years through a series of catastrophic upheavals.
- The environment is responsible for natural selection.


Question: Which of the following would most likely describe the fate of a vesicle formed as a result of phagocytosis?

Choices:
- The vesicle merges with a mitochondrion.
- The vesicle merges with a lysosome.
- The vesicle is shuttled to the nucleus, and its contents become part of the nucleolus.
- The vesicle releases its contents to the cytoplasm to be digested.


Question: A population undergoes a shift in which those who are really tall and those who are really short decrease in relative frequency compared to those of medium size, due to a change in the availability of resources. This is an example of

Choices:
- directional selection.
- stabilizing selection.
- disruptive selection.
- sympatric speciation.


Question: Which of the following theories is based on the notion that mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved from prokaryotic cells?

Choices:
- Fluid mosaic model
- Endosymbiotic model
- Taxonomic model
- Respiration feedback model


Question: The nucleotide sequence of a DNA molecule is 5′-C-A-T-3′. A mRNA molecule with a complementary codon is transcribed from the DNA in the process of protein synthesis a tRNA pairs with a mRNA codon. What is the nucleotide sequence of the tRNA anticodon?

Choices:
- 5′-G-T-A-3′
- 5′-G-U-A-3′
- 5′-C-A-U-3′
- 5-′U-A-C-3′


Question: During drought years on the Galapagos, small, easily eaten seeds become rare, leaving mostly large, hard-cased seeds that only birds with large beaks can eat. If a drought persists for several years, what should one expect to result from natural selection?

Choices:
- Small birds gaining larger beaks by exercising their mouth parts.
- Small birds mutating their beak genes with the result that later-generation offspring have larger beaks.
- Small birds anticipating the long drought and eating more to gain weight and, consequently, growing larger beaks.
- More small-beaked birds dying than larger-beaked birds. The offspring produced in subsequent generations have a higher percentage of birds with large beaks.


Question: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of asexual reproduction in animals?

Choices:
- Daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
- Daughter cells are identical to the parent cell.
- The parent cell produces diploid cells.
- The daughter cells fuse to form a zygote.


Question: A biologist studied a population of squirrels for 15 years. During that time, the population was never fewer than 30 squirrels and never more than 45. Her data showed that over half of the squirrels born did not survive to reproduce, because of competition for food and predation. In a single generation, 90% of the squirrels that were born lived to reproduce, and the population increased to 80. Which inference(s) about this population might be true?

Choices:
- The amount of available food may have increased.
- The number of predators may have decreased.
- The squirrels of subsequent generations should show greater levels of genetic variation than previous generations, because squirrels that would not have survived in the past will now survive.
- A, B, and C


Question: Which group is composed entirely of individuals who maintained that species are fixed (i.e., unchanging)?

Choices:
- Aristotle, Cuvier, and Lamarck
- Linnaeus, Cuvier, and Lamarck
- Lyell, Linnaeus, and Lamarck
- Aristotle, Linnaeus, and Cuvier


Question: Except for identical twins, no two people are genetically identical. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the main source of variation in humans?

Choices:
- The main source of variation in humans is genetic drift.
- Changes in the environment cause rapid changes in different human populations.
- Shuffling of alleles is responsible for the greatest variation in humans.
- Mutations are responsible for the greatest changes in different human populations.


Question: An eager AP Biology student interested in studying osmosis and the movement of water in solutions took a dialysis bag containing a 0.5 M solution and placed it into a beaker containing a 0.6 M solution. If this bag were instead placed into a beaker of distilled water, what would be the expected result?

Choices:
- There will be a net flow of water out of the bag, causing it to decrease in size.
- There will be a net flow of water into the bag, causing it to swell in size.
- The bag will remain the exact same size because no water will move at all.
- The solute will flow out of the dialysis bag into the beaker.


Question: Crossing-over during meiosis permits scientists to determine

Choices:
- the chance for variation in zygotes
- the rate of mutations
- the distance between genes on a chromosome
- which traits are dominant or recessive


Question: An organism exposed to wild temperature fluctuations shows very little, if any, change in its metabolic rate. This organism is most probably a

Choices:
- ectotherm.
- endotherm.
- thermophyle.
- ascospore.


Question: What was the prevailing notion prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin?

Choices:
- Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging.
- Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change.
- Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change.
- Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging.


Question: On Andros Islands in the Bahamas, populations of mosquito fish, Gambusia hubbsi, colonized a series of ponds. These ponds are no longer connected. However, the environments are very similar except that some ponds contain predatory fish, while others do not. In high predation ponds, selection has favored the evolution of a body shape that enables rapid bursts of speed. In low predation ponds, another body type is favored—one that is well-suited to swim for long periods of time.

Choices:
- Reproductive isolation caused geographic isolation.
- Reproductive isolation was not complete.
- Allopatric isolation brought about reproductive isolation.
- Sympatric isolation brought about reproductive isolation.


Question: Which of the following statement is supported by the information given in the pedigree?

Choices:
- The P generation mother is X-X.
- The P generation father is X-Y.
- If parents 1 and 2 in row II have another child, the chance that the child would be afflicted with alkaptonuria is 25%.
- The genotype of woman 1 is X-X.


Question: A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more functional than those currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals as horses, whales, and bats. That the actual forelimbs of these mammals do not seem to be optimally arranged is because

Choices:
- natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design in each case, but will do so given enough time.
- natural selection operates in ways that are beyond the capability of the human mind to comprehend.
- in many cases, phenotype is not merely determined by genotype, but by the environment as well.
- natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were present in previous generations and in previous species.


Question: Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth?

Choices:
- All organisms require energy.
- All organisms use essentially the same genetic code.
- All organisms reproduce.
- All organisms show heritable variation.


Question: Organisms in which of the following phyla have a true coelom?

Choices:
- Platyhelminthes
- Porifera
- Annelida
- Nematoda


Question: A certain autosomal recessive trait is expressed in 1% of a population. Assuming that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what percent of the population are carriers but do not express the trait?

Choices:
- 10%
- 18%
- 27%
- 50%


Question: Which of the following properties is responsible for holding together the water molecules in a vertical column of water in xylem vessels of a plant?

Choices:
- the strong adhesion property of water
- the strong cohesion of property of water
- the high heat capacity of water
- the strong cohesion property of cellulose in the xylem cell wall


Question: Which of the following statements is NOT correct about apoptosis?

Choices:
- Apoptosis, a special type of cell division, requires multiple cell signaling.
- The fact that apoptosis is widespread across several kingdoms is evidence that it evolved early in the evolution of eukaryotes.
- Apoptosis plays a crucial role in the development of fingers in embryonic development.
- Apoptosis prevents an aging and dying cell from damaging neighboring cells.


Question: All of the following organs in the digestive system secrete digestive enzymes EXCEPT the

Choices:
- mouth
- stomach
- gall bladder
- small intestine


Question: All of the following are stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system EXCEPT

Choices:
- dilation of the pupil of the eye
- constriction of blood vessels
- increased secretion of the sweat glands
- increased peristalsis in the gastrointestinal tract


Question: In the inherited disorder called Pompe disease, glycogen breakdown in the cytosol occurs normally and blood glucose levels are normal, yet glycogen accumulates in lysosomes. This suggests a malfunction with

Choices:
- enzymes in the lysosomes
- enzymes in the mitochondria
- membrane transport during exocytosis
- membrane transport during endocytosis


Question: A trend toward the decrease in the size of plants on the slopes of mountains as altitudes increase is an example of

Choices:
- a cline.
- a bottleneck.
- relative fitness.
- genetic drift.


Question: Which of the following is an example of a cline?

Choices:
- The hybrid tomato plant is stronger and produces better fruit than the pure genotype.
- There are two distinct varieties in one population of snail that inhabits an island in the Pacific Ocean.
- Males of some species have long antlers to fight other males for females.
- In one species of rabbit, the ones that evolved in the cold, snowy north are white, while the ones that evolved in the south are brown.


Question: A healthy man and woman are worried about having children because they are both carriers of sickle-cell disease. If the couple have a biological child, what is the chance that the child will inherit sickle-cell disease?

Choices:
- 100%
- 75%
- 50%
- 25%


Question: Females with Turner's syndrome have a high incidence of hemophilia, a recessive, X-linked trait. Based on this information, it can be inferred that females with this condition

Choices:
- have an extra X chromosome
- have an extra Y chromosome
- lack an X chromosome
- have red blood cells that clump


Question: Which of the following is the direct energy source that allows ATP synthase to produce ATP in mitochondria?

Choices:
- NADH diffusing from the mitochondrial intermembrane space to the matrix
- The reduction of NAD+ during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
- H+ ions flowing down a gradient across the mitochondrial inner membrane
- The energy of electrons passing along the electron transport chain


Question: Which of the following cells is most closely associated with phagocytosis?

Choices:
- Neutrophils
- Plasma cells
- B cells
- Memory cells


Question: Lampreys attach to the skin of lake trout and absorb nutrients from its body. This relationship is an example of

Choices:
- commensalism
- parasitism
- mutualism
- gravitropism


Question: Which of the following is correct about organisms that are the first to colonize a habitat undergoing ecological succession?

Choices:
- They are the fiercest competitors in the area.
- They maintain the habitat as it is for their own kind.
- They change the habitat in a way that makes it more habitable for other organisms.
- They are small invertebrates.


Question: Unlike large populations, small populations are vulnerable to various processes that draw populations down an extinction vortex toward smaller and smaller populations until no individuals survive. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the factors that endanger a population?

Choices:
- Inbreeding and loss of genetic variation threaten a population.
- Migration of new individuals into the population threatens a population.
- Mutation reduces the health of a population.
- Breeding with individuals from a different population may cause the extinction of the first population due to a decrease in diversity.


Question: Fossil evidence indicates that horses have gradually increased in size over geologic time. Which of the following terms best describes this?

Choices:
- artificial selection
- directional selection
- stabilizing selection
- disruptive selection


Question: Which describes an African butterfly species that exists in two strikingly different color patterns?

Choices:
- artificial selection
- directional selection
- stabilizing selection
- disruptive selection


Question: Regarding meiosis and mitosis, one difference between the two forms of cellular reproduction is that in meiosis

Choices:
- there is one round of cell division, whereas in mitosis there are two rounds of cell division
- separation of sister chromatids occurs during the second division, whereas in mitosis separation of sister chromatids occurs during the first division
- chromosomes are replicated during interphase, whereas in mitosis chromosomes are replicated during prophase
- spindle fibers form during prophase, whereas in mitosis the spindle fibers form during metaphase


Question: Which of the following about meiosis is NOT true?

Choices:
- Meiosis produces two haploid gametes.
- Homologous chromosomes join during synapsis.
- Sister chromatids separate during meiosis I.
- Crossing-over increases genetic variation in gametes.


Question: Oligomycin is an antibiotic that blocks proton channels in the cristae of mitochondria by binding to ATP synthase. Which of the following would be the first expected response after the application of oligomycin to cells?

Choices:
- Water production would increase.
- H+ would increase inside the intermembrane space (the compartment between inner and outer membranes).
- H+ would increase in the matrix (inside mitochondrial inner membrane).
- H+ would increase outside mitochondria.


Question: If neutral variation is truly "neutral," then it should have no effect on

Choices:
- nucleotide diversity.
- average heterozygosity.
- our ability to measure the rate of evolution.
- relative fitness.


Question: Which of the following characteristics would allow you to distinguish a prokaryotic cell from an animal cell?

Choices:
- Ribosomes
- Cell membrane
- Chloroplasts
- Cell wall


Question: This process leads to the net production of two pyruvate, two ATP, and two NADH.

Choices:
- Glycolysis
- Chemiosmosis
- Fermentation
- Calvin cycle


Question: When oxygen becomes unavailable, this process regenerates NAD+, allowing respiration to continue.

Choices:
- Glycolysis
- Chemiosmosis
- Fermentation
- Calvin cycle


Question: Before the human genome was sequenced by the Human Genome Project, scientists expected that they would find about 100,000 genes. In fact, they discovered that humans have only about 24,000 genes. How can we exhibit so many different traits from so few genes?

Choices:
- Modification of histone proteins usually increases the function of genes.
- Epigenetics enables one gene to produce many different traits.
- This is proof that pseudogenes and introns are expressed.
- A single gene can produce more than one trait because of alternative splicing


Question: Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that population?

Choices:
- Genetic variation among individuals
- Variation among individuals caused by environmental factors
- Sexual reproduction
- B and C only


Question: You observe a species that gives birth to only one offspring at a time and has a relatively long life-span for its body size. Which of the following is probably also true of this organism?

Choices:
- It lives in a newly colonized habitat.
- It is an aquatic organism.
- It requires relatively high parental care of offspring.
- The age at which the offspring themselves can give birth is relatively young.


Question: A piece of potato is dropped into a beaker of pure water. Which of the following describes the initial condition when the potato enters the water?

Choices:
- The water potential of the pure water is negative.
- The water potential of the pure water is positive.
- The water potential of the potato is positive.
- The water potential of the potato is negative.


Question: In most ecosystems, net primary productivity is important because it represents the

Choices:
- energy available to producers
- total solar energy converted to chemical energy by producers
- biomass of all producers
- energy available to heterotrophs


Question: During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students remarks, "The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement is most likely to be helpful in correcting this student's misconception?

Choices:
- Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes.
- Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits.
- Only favorable adaptations have survival value.
- Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance.


Question: Incomplete dominance and epistasis are two terms that define genetic relationships. Which of the following statements best describes the differences or similarities between the two terms?

Choices:
- Both terms describe inheritance controlled by the interaction of multiple alleles at different loci.
- Both terms describe inheritance controlled by the interaction of multiple genes at different loci.
- Incomplete dominance describes the interaction of two genes at different loci; epistasis describes the interaction of two alleles.
- Incomplete dominance describes the interaction of two alleles on one gene; epistasis describes the interaction of two genes and their respective alleles.


Question: Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your liver cells is correct?

Choices:
- Your liver cells contain the same DNA as your white blood cells.
- Most of the DNA in your liver cells will be transcribed but not translated.
- Most of the DNA in your liver cells will be transcribed in the nucleus and translated in the cytoplasm.
- DNA in your liver cells contains genes unique to storing glycogen, while other cells do not contain those genes.


Question: Energy is harvested during cellular respiration in stages. Which of the following correctly states which phase of cellular respiration harvests the most energy and the correct explanation why?

Choices:
- The most energy is released during the Krebs cycle because it is here that pyruvate is completely broken down into CO2.
- The most energy is released during the Krebs cycle because in addition to the production of ATP, both FADH2 and NADH are produced. Each of those molecules will release 2 ATPs and 3 ATPs, respectively.
- The most energy is released during oxidative phosphorylation because in addition to the phosphorylation of ADP into ATP, all the potential energy held in NADH and FADH is transferred to ATP.
- The most energy is released during oxidative phosphorylation because H2O is completely broken down into H+ and O2.


Question: Which of the following best explains why drinking breast milk is beneficial to a human infant?

Choices:
- Breast milk contains vitamins that repair mutations originating in the sperm or egg.
- Breast milk contains maternal antibodies that protect against gastrointestinal pathogens.
- Breast milk contains maternal vaccines that destroy common childhood pathogens.
- Breast milk contains red blood cells with adult hemoglobin that are beneficial to the infant's developing brain.


Question: During oxidative phosphorylation, the energy needed to drive ATP synthesis comes from one source. Which of the following statements states the immediate source of that energy?

Choices:
- Electrons flow down an electron transport chain as they are attracted to oxygen.
- The transfer of a phosphate group to ADP is exergonic.
- The bonding of electrons to oxygen at the end of the chain releases energy.
- The proton gradient across the membrane where the ATP synthase is embedded represents potential energy.


Question: Easily produced genetic variation is key to the rapid evolution of viral and microbial populations. Furthermore, pathogens that need to escape the immune system rely on this variation to generate new surface antigens that go unrecognized by the host’s immune system. Which of the following is an example of this antigenic variation?

Choices:
- HIV, which can remain integrated into the host genome for many years
- The flu virus, which changes its envelope proteins
- MRSA, which has become resistant to many antibiotics
- Multiple sclerosis, which attacks the cells of the nervous system


Question: If a couple has had three sons and the woman is pregnant with their fourth child, what is the probability that child 4 will also be male?

Choices:
- 1/2
- 1/4
- 1/8
- 1/16


Question: Which of the following is an incorrect statement about gel electrophoresis?

Choices:
- DNA migrates from positive charge to negative charge.
- Smaller DNA travels faster.
- The DNA migrates only when the current is running.
- The longer the current is running, the farther the DNA will travel.


Question: Which of the following observations helped Darwin shape his concept of descent with modification?

Choices:
- Species diversity declines farther from the equator.
- Fewer species live on islands than on the nearest continents.
- Birds can be found on islands located farther from the mainland than the birds' maximum nonstop flight distance.
- South American temperate plants are more similar to the tropical plants of South America than to the temperate plants of Europe.


Question: Which of the following statements about post-transcriptional modification are incorrect?

Choices:
- A poly-A tail is added to the 3′ end of the mRNA.
- A guanine cap is added to the 5′ end of the mRNA.
- Introns are removed from the mRNA.
- Posttranscriptional modification occurs in the cytoplasm.


Question: Photosynthesis requires

Choices:
- glucose, light, CO2
- light, CO2, water
- water, soil, O2
- O2, water, light


Question: The first simple cells evolved approximately 3.5 billion years ago, followed by the more complex eukaryotic cells 2.1 billion years ago. Which of the following statements is correct?

Choices:
- Eukaryotic organelles helped create separate environments for metabolic reactions, thus increasing their metabolic efficiency.
- Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have no structural similarities.
- The organelles in larger eukaryotic cells took care of the problems of having a larger surface area–to–volume ratio.
- Eukaryotic cells are able to multiply faster based on their more complex structure.


Question: The sequence of amino acids in hemoglobin molecules of humans is more similar to the hemoglobin of chimpanzees than it is to the hemoglobin of dogs. This similarity suggests that

Choices:
- humans and dogs are more closely related than humans and chimpanzees
- humans and chimpanzees are more closely related than humans and dogs
- humans are related to chimpanzees but not to dogs
- humans and chimpanzees are closely analogous


Question: Basepair sequence that signals the start site for gene transcription.

Choices:
- Enhancer
- Repressor
- Operator
- Promoter


Question: Those being hunted adopt a coloring scheme that allows them to blend in to the colors of the environment.

Choices:
- Aposomatic coloration
- Batesian mimicry
- Deceptive markings
- Cryptic coloration


Question: A baby duck runs for cover when a large object is tossed over its head. After this object is repeatedly passed overhead, the duck learns there is no danger and stops running for cover when the same object appears again. This is an example of

Choices:
- imprinting.
- fixed-action pattern.
- agonistic behavior.
- habituation.


Question: Stretching out from the equator is a wide belt of tropical rain forests that are being cut down to provide exotic woods for export to the U.S. and to make land available to graze beef cattle. Which of the following statements is a negative consequence of clear-cutting the tropical rain forests?

Choices:
- Indigenous populations will have access to modern conveniences.
- There will be less precipitation in those clear-cut areas.
- U.S. markets will have access to less expensive beef.
- Deforestation will allow more sunlight to penetrate areas that were kept dark by dense vegetation.


Question: The theory of evolution is most accurately described as

Choices:
- an educated guess about how species originate.
- one possible explanation, among several scientific alternatives, about how species have come into existence.
- an opinion that some scientists hold about how living things change over time.
- an overarching explanation, supported by much evidence, for how populations change over time.


Question: Which of the following statements explains how a point mutation can have no negative impact in the protein formed from a sequence in DNA?

Choices:
- The first codon of a gene is always AUG, a leader sequence; a mutation in that sequence will have no effect on the protein produced.
- Several codons code for the same amino acid.
- DNA polymerase and DNA ligase carry out excision repair before transcription.
- RNA processing will repair point mutations before mRNA leaves the nucleus.


Question: Which of the following statements correctly characterizes an autoimmune disease?

Choices:
- T cells attack healthy body cells.
- An aneurysm is a weakness in the wall of a blood vessel that causes it to balloon out. The vessel can rupture and cause a hemorrhage.
- Several factors cause hypertension: smoking, being overweight, lack of physical activity, and too much salt in the diet.
- Alzheimer's disease is caused by the buildup of plaque within the brain, causing brain cells to die.


Question: All of the following play an important role in regulating respiration in humans EXCEPT

Choices:
- an increase in the amount of CO2 in the blood
- a decrease in the amount of O2 in the blood
- a decrease in the plasma pH level
- strenuous exercise


Question: Water and minerals that reach the xylem in the center of a plant root must first

Choices:
- move through neighboring phloem vessels
- cross open stomata in the root epidermis
- cross the endodermis of the root cortex
- pass through the pith of the root cap


Question: A lizard lacking a chemical defense mechanism that is colored in the same way as a lizard that has a defense mechanism is displaying

Choices:
- aposometric coloration.
- cryptic coloration.
- Batesian mimicry.
- Müllerian mimicry.


Question: Logically, which of these should cast the most doubt on the relationships depicted by an evolutionary tree?

Choices:
- None of the organisms depicted by the tree ate the same foods.
- Some of the organisms depicted by the tree had lived in different habitats.
- The skeletal remains of the organisms depicted by the tree were incomplete (i.e., some bones were missing).
- Relationships between DNA sequences among the species did not match relationships between skeletal patterns.


Question: Sexual dimorphism is most often a result of

Choices:
- pansexual selection.
- stabilizing selection.
- intrasexual selection.
- intersexual selection.


Question: Which of the following statements about meiosis is correct?

Choices:
- The daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cells.
- Homologues pair during prophase II.
- DNA replication occurs before meiosis I and meiosis II.
- The number of chromosomes is reduced.


Question: Stomata allow gases, such as H2O and CO2, to exchange between the inside of a plant leaf and the surrounding environment. Which of the following occurs under normal daytime environmental conditions?

Choices:
- H2O diffuses out of the leaf faster than CO2 enters.
- H2O diffuses out of the leaf slower than CO2 enters.
- CO2 diffuses out of the leaf faster than H2O enters.
- H2O exchanges with CO2 at equal rates.


Question: Which of these makes determining the evolutionary relatedness of different species based on the amino acid sequence of homologous proteins generally less accurate than determinations of relatedness based on the nucleotide sequences of homologous genes?

Choices:
- Silent mutations
- Gene duplications
- Translocation events that change gene sequences
- Crossing-over


Question: An animal that is harmless copies the appearance of an animal that is dangerous as a defense mechanism to make predators think twice about attacking.

Choices:
- Aposomatic coloration
- Batesian mimicry
- Deceptive markings
- Cryptic coloration


Question: The pH of two lakes is measured. Lake A has a pH of 8.0; Lake B has a pH of 6.0. Which of the following statements is correct about these lakes?

Choices:
- Lake B is alkaline.
- Lake B is 100 times more alkaline than Lake A.
- The hydrogen ion concentration of Lake B is 104 M.
- The pH of both lakes will decrease in response to acid rain.


Question: A plant grows in the opposite direction of the gravitational force. This is an example of

Choices:
- positive thignotropism
- negative phototropism
- positive phototropism
- negative gravitropism


Question: Which of the following is known to be involved in the photoperiodic flowering response of angiosperms?

Choices:
- Auxin
- Cytochrome
- Phytochrome
- Gibberellins


Question: In plants, the tendency of climbing vines to twine their tendrils around a trellis is called

Choices:
- thigmotropism
- hydrotropism
- phototropism
- geotropism


Question: Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which natural selection is based?

Choices:
- There is heritable variation among individuals.
- Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
- Species produce more offspring than the environment can support.
- Individuals whose characteristics are best suited to the environment generally leave more offspring than those whose characteristics are less suited.


Question: Microtubules are protein filaments assembled from tubulin protein subunits. The chemical colchicine prevents the assembly of microtubules by binding to tubulin protein subunits. Which of the following cellular processes would be most impaired by the application of colchicine?

Choices:
- the alignment and separation of chromosomes during mitosis
- the coordination of ribosomes and mRNA during protein synthesis
- the movement of substances across the plasma membrane
- the accumulation of protons inside the thylakoids of chloroplasts during chemiosmosis


Question: The principle inorganic compound found in living things is

Choices:
- carbon
- oxygen
- water
- glucose


Question: Which of the following statements is an inference of natural selection?

Choices:
- Subsequent generations of a population should have greater proportions of individuals that possess traits better suited for success.
- An individual organism undergoes evolution over the course of its lifetime.
- Habitats do not generally have unlimited resources.
- Natural populations tend to reproduce to their full biological potential.


Question: Recently, seasonal dead zones in low-oxygen waters have been occurring annually in the Gulf of Mexico near the mouth of the Mississippi River. The dead zones result from the rapid growth of photosynthetic phytoplankton (algal blooms) and their subsequent decay by oxygen-depleting microbes in the water column. Which of the following factors most likely triggers the algal blooms and the associated dead zones?

Choices:
- A decrease in the light level in surface waters as day length starts to shorten after the summer solstice
- Increased predation by marine larvae and other zooplankton during the summer months
- A summer influx of nutrients derived from chemical fertilizers that are high in nitrogen and phosphorus
- Decreased competition from other marine phytoplankton during the summer months


Question: Which of the following best summarizes the process of allopatric speciation?

Choices:
- differential changes in allele frequencies → reproductive isolation → reproductive barriers → new species
- catastrophic event → reproductive isolation → reproductive barriers → new species
- reproductive isolation → differential changes in allele frequencies → reproductive barriers → new species
- geographic isolation → reproductive isolation → differential changes in allele frequencies → reproductive barriers → new species


Question: In a hypothetical population's gene pool, an autosomal gene, which had previously been fixed, undergoes a mutation that introduces a new allele, one inherited according to incomplete dominance. Natural selection then causes stabilizing selection at this locus. Consequently, what should happen over the course of many generations?

Choices:
- The proportions of both types of homozygote should decrease.
- The proportion of the population that is heterozygous at this locus should remain constant.
- The population's average heterozygosity should increase.
- Both A and C


Question: Which of the following is the correct characteristic of arteries?

Choices:
- They are thin-walled blood vessels.
- They contain valves that prevent backflow.
- They always carry oxygenated blood.
- They carry blood away from the heart.


Question: Which of the following statements about trypsin is NOT true?

Choices:
- It is an organic compound made of proteins.
- It is a catalyst that alters the rate of a reaction.
- It is operative over a wide pH range.
- The rate of catalysis is affected by the concentration of substrate.


Question: Transcription-affecting DNA region that may be located thousands of basepairs away from the promoter.

Choices:
- Enhancer
- Repressor
- Operator
- Promoter


Question: Which of the following are traits that are affected by more than one gene?

Choices:
- Heterozygous traits
- Pleiotropic traits
- Polygenic traits
- Blended alleles


Question: A student conducts an experiment to test the efficiency of a certain enzyme. Which of the following protocols would probably not result in a change in the enzyme’s efficiency?

Choices:
- Bringing the temperature of the experimental setup from 20°C to 50°C
- Adding an acidic solution to the setup
- Adding substrate but not enzyme
- Placing the substrate and enzyme in a container with double the capacity


Question: Kangaroo rats are better able to concentrate urine than humans are. It would be expected that, compared to the nephrons of human kidneys, the nephrons of kangaroo-rat kidneys would have

Choices:
- thicker walls, which are impermeable to water
- shorter loops of Henle
- longer loops of Henle
- shorter collecting ducts